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QUESTION 242
A wireless engineer is preparing for a meeting with a customer to discuss a new wireless network design. The customer is a company that develops code and occupies a three-story building. Which two information points does a presite survey questionnaire contain? (Choose two.)

A. client devices that will connect to the wireless network
B. access point density required
C. total number of access points in use
D. applications that will run over the wireless network
E. model of the wireless controller

Answer: AD
Explanation:
A presite survey questionnaire gathers details on the types of client devices (e.g., laptops, tablets, VoIP handsets) and their radios to determine RF behavior and compatibility. It also captures application requirements (voice, video, data throughput) so you can size capacity and tailor QoS and roaming parameters appropriately.

QUESTION 243
A small customer has a legacy autonomous mode Wi-Fi deployment that provides a low-density and low-capacity service. The customer wants to update and replace this deployment with the latest Wi-Fi technology but has a fixed budget that will pay only to replace the APs. Which architectural controller deployment model suits this requirement?

A. cloud
B. unified
C. embedded
D. fabric

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[2025-December-New]Braindump2go 300-425 Exam Questions PDF Free[Q242-Q312]

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QUESTION 242
A wireless engineer is preparing for a meeting with a customer to discuss a new wireless network design. The customer is a company that develops code and occupies a three-story building. Which two information points does a presite survey questionnaire contain? (Choose two.)

A. client devices that will connect to the wireless network
B. access point density required
C. total number of access points in use
D. applications that will run over the wireless network
E. model of the wireless controller

Answer: AD
Explanation:
A presite survey questionnaire gathers details on the types of client devices (e.g., laptops, tablets, VoIP handsets) and their radios to determine RF behavior and compatibility. It also captures application requirements (voice, video, data throughput) so you can size capacity and tailor QoS and roaming parameters appropriately.

QUESTION 243
A small customer has a legacy autonomous mode Wi-Fi deployment that provides a low-density and low-capacity service. The customer wants to update and replace this deployment with the latest Wi-Fi technology but has a fixed budget that will pay only to replace the APs. Which architectural controller deployment model suits this requirement?

A. cloud
B. unified
C. embedded
D. fabric

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QUESTION 245
Which type of identity store allows for creating single-use access credentials in Cisco ISE?

A. OpenLDAP
B. Local
C. PKI
D. RSA SecurID

Answer: D

QUESTION 246
A network engineer needs to deploy 802.1x using Cisco ISE in a wired network environment where thin clients download their system image upon bootup using PXE. For which mode must the switch ports be configured?

A. closed
B. restricted
C. monitor
D. low-impact

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QUESTION 265
An organization is implementing Cisco FTD using transparent mode in the network. Which rule in the default Access Control Policy ensures that this deployment does not create a loop in the network?

A. ARP inspection is enabled by default.
B. Multicast and broadcast packets are denied by default.
C. STP BPDU packets are allowed by default.
D. ARP packets are allowed by default.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/630/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v63/transparent_or_routed_firewall_mode_for_firepower_threat_defense.html

QUESTION 266
An organization is installing a new Cisco FTD appliance in the network. An engineer is tasked with configuring access between two network segments within the same IP subnet. Which step is needed to accomplish this task?

A. Assign an IP address to the Bridge Virtual Interface.
B. Permit BPDU packets to prevent loops.
C. Specify a name for the bridge group.
D. Add a separate bridge group for each segment.

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QUESTION 94
Which element evaluates a customer outcome?

A. key performance indicators
B. milestones
C. metrics
D. benchmarks

Answer: D

QUESTION 95
Which action should be taken when new company leadership is forcing a competitor’s solution?

A. Recheck the value realized by the current solution.
B. Demonstrate how the current solution is a lower-cost solution than competitors.
C. Hold an executive briefing to evaluate risks of the proposed solution.
D. Tell the new leadership about the long-standing relationship between two companies.

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QUESTION 431
An engineer is configuring device-hardening on a router in order to prevent credentials from being seen if the router configuration was compromised. Which command should be used?

A. service password-encryption
B. username <username> privilege 15 password <password>
C. service password-recovery
D. username < username> password <password>

Answer: A

QUESTION 432
Which security solution protects users leveraging DNS-layer security?

A. Cisco ISE
B. Cisco FTD
C. Cisco Umbrella
D. Cisco ASA

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QUESTION 109
An engineer must perform a Cisco ACI fabric upgrade that minimizes the impact on user traffic and allows only permitted users to perform an upgrade.
Which two configuration steps should be taken to meet these requirements?

A. Divide Cisco APIC controllers into two or more maintenance groups.
B. Grant tenant-ext-admin access to a user who performs an upgrade
C. Combine all switches into an upgrade group.
D. Divide switches into two or more maintenance groups.
E. Grant the fabric administrator role to a user who performs an upgrade.

Answer: DE

QUESTION 110
A customer creates Layer 3 connectivity to the outside network. However, only border leaf switches start receiving destination updates to other networks from the newly created L3Out. The updates must also be propagated to other Cisco ACI leaf switches. The L3Out is linked with the EPGs via a contract. Which action must be taken in the pod policy group to accomplish this goal?

A. Apply a BGP route reflector policy.
B. Enable a COOP policy.
C. Configure an IS-IS policy.
D. Implement an access management policy.

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QUESTION 448
A mid-size service provider uses L2VPN as its standard for connectivity between offices. A small company wants the service provider to connect the company’s two sites across the service provider core. To meet service requirements, the service provider must extend the Layer 2 domain between the company’s two locations. Which configuration must the engineer apply to implement an attachment circuit between the two sites using a VLAN tag of 12?

A. interface TenGigE0/0/0/1.0 l2transport
encapsulation dot1q 12
rewrite ingress tag pop 13
B. interface TenGigE0/0/0/1.0 l2transport
encapsulation dot1q 12
C. interface TenGigE0/0/0/1.0 l2transport
encapsulation dot1q 12
rewrite ingress tag translate 1-to-1 dot1q 2
D. interface TenGigE0/0/0/1.0 l2transport
encapsulation dot1q 12
rewrite ingress tag push dot1q 21 symmetric

Answer: B
Explanation:
For connecting the two sites across the service provider core and extending the Layer 2 domain, the service provider needs to configure an attachment circuit with the specified VLAN tag (12). The configuration includes:
– interface TenGigE0/0/0/1.0 l2transport: Sets up the interface for Layer 2 transport mode.
– encapsulation dot1q 12: Configures the VLAN tag (12) for the attachment circuit, ensuring that the Layer 2 traffic is properly encapsulated and forwarded across the provider’s MPLS core.

QUESTION 449
According to RFC5305 on IS-IS extensions for traffic engineering, what is the 4-octet sub-TLV type 10 of extended IS-IS reachability TLV type 22?

A. TE default metric
B. maximum reservable link bandwidth
C. administrative group (color)
D. IPv4 neighbor address

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QUESTION 1028
Which DNS record type is required to allow APs to discover a WLC by using DNS on IPv4?

A. NS
B. A
C. SOA
D. MX

Answer: B

QUESTION 1029
What is modularity in network design?

A. ability to bundle several functions into a single layer of the network
B. ability to create self-contained, repeatable sections of the network
C. ability to self-heal the network to prevent service outages
D. ability to scale and accommodate future needs of the network

Answer: D
Explanation:
You can design a campus network in a logical manner, using a modular approach. In this approach, each layer of the hierarchical network model can be broken into basic functional units. These units, or modules, then can be sized appropriately and connected, while allowing for future scalability and expansion.

QUESTION 1030
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured TACACS+ to authenticate remote users, but the configuration is not working as expected. Which configuration must be applied to enable access?

A. R1 (config)# ip tacacs source-interface Gig 0/0
B. R1 (config)# tacacs server prod
R1(config-server-tacacs)# port 1020
C. R1 (config)# aaa authorization exec default group tacacs+ local
D. R1 (config)# tacacs server prod
R1(config-server-tacacs)# key cisco123

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QUESTION 1
Which routes does the overlay management protocol advertise in an SD-WAN overlay?

A. underlay, MPLS, and overlay
B. primary, backup, and load-balanced
C. prefix, TLOC, and service
D. Internet, MPLS, and backup

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A network solution is being designed for a company that connects to multiple Internet service providers. Which Cisco proprietary BGP path attribute will influence outbound traffic flow?

A. Local Preference
B. MED
C. Weight
D. AS Path
E. Community

Answer: C
Explanation:
Weight is Cisco proprietary and is the first decision of all path attributes to influence outbound traffic on a singular router. Weight is non-transitive and will only influence routes as they leave that device.

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured on all links. The spoke nodes have been configured as EIGRP stubs, and the WAN links to R3 have higher bandwidth and lower delay than the links to R4.
When a link failure occurs at the R1-R2 link, what happens to traffic on R1 that is destined for a subnet attached to R2?

A. R1 has no route to R2 and drops the traffic
B. R1 load-balances across the paths through R3 and R4 to reach R2
C. R1 forwards the traffic to R3, but R3 drops the traffic
D. R1 forwards the traffic to R3 in order to reach R2

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QUESTION 1
Which device information is required on PNP/ZTP to support the zero touch onboarding process?

A. serial and chassis numbers
B. interface IP address
C. public DNS entry
D. system IP address

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/sd-wan-wan-edge-onboarding-deploy-guide-2020jan.pdf

QUESTION 2
Which configuration step is taken on vManage after WAN Edge list is uploaded to support the on-boarding process before the device comes online?

A. Verify the device certificate
B. Enable the ZTP process
C. Set the device as valid
D. Send the list to controllers

Answer: C+
Explanation:

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/sdwan-wan-edge-onboarding-deploy-guide-2020nov.pdf

QUESTION 3
Which SD-WAN component is configured to enforce a policy to redirect branch-to-branch traffic toward a network service such as a firewall or IPS?

A. vBond
B. vSmart
C. WAN Edge
D. Firewall

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QUESTION 409
An engineer is creating a policy that overrides normal routing behavior.if the route to a destination of 10.100.100.0/24 is withdrawn from the routing Table, the policy must direct traffic to a next hop of 10.1 1.1. if the route is present in the routing table, then normal forwarding must occur.
Which
configuration meets the requirements?

A. access-list 100 permit ip any any
!
route-map POLICY permit 10
match ip address 100
set ip next-hop recursive 10.1.1.1
B. access-list 100 permit ip any 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 !
Route-map POLICY permit 10
match ip address 100
set ip default next-hop 10.1.1.1
C. access-list 100 permit ip any 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 !
route-map POLICY permit 10
match ip address 100
set ip next-hop 10.1.1.1
!
route map POLICY permit 20
D. access-list 100 permit ip any 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 !
route map POLICY permit 10
match ip address 100
Set ip next-hop recursive 10.1.1.1
!
route-map POLICY permit 20

Answer: D

QUESTION 410
Refer to the exhibit. After a new regional office is set up, not all guests can access the internet via guest Wi Fi. Clients are getting the correct IP address from guest Wi-Fi VLAN 364.
Which action resolves the issue ?

A. Allow 10.66.46.0/23 in the outbound ACL
B. Allow DNS traffic through the outbound ACL
C. Allow DNS traffic through the inbound ACL
D. Allow 10.66.46.0/23 in the inbound ACL

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QUESTION 1560
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?
SW1: 0С:0А:05:22:05:97
SW2: 0C:0A:A8:1A:3C:9D
SW3: 0С:0А:18:81:ВЗ:19
SW4: 0С:4А:82:56:35:78

A. SW1
B. SW2
C. SW3
D. SW4

Answer: C
Explanation:
You can manipulate the Root Bridge Election by setting Bridge priority on your switches. The default value is 32768, and the lowest number is preferred. In the case of a tie, the switch with the lowest MAC address will be selected.

QUESTION 1561
Which alternative to password authentication is implemented to allow enterprise devices to log in to the corporate network?

A. 90-day renewal policies
B. magic links
C. one-time passwords
D. digital certificates

Answer: D

QUESTION 1562
Refer to the exhibit. The user has connectivity to devices on network 192.168.3.0/24 but cannot reach users on the network 10.10.1.0/24. What is the first step to verify connectivity?

A. Is the internet reachable?
B. Is the default gateway reachable?
C. Is the DNS server reachable?
D. Is the IPv4 address reachable?

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QUESTION 454
Which CI/CD component allows for the storing of code packages and enables the testing of the same code that is running on the live system?

A. Artifactory
B. Jira
C. ITSM
D. Git

Answer: A
Explanation:
Git is used for source code and Artifactory is used for the binaries which go with the source code.

QUESTION 455
A development team needs to containerize an application named ‘custapp4o3p2r6d3s6w7x6t9’. A Dockerfile has been created and now the docker build command must be run using the current folder to find the Dockerfile, build the image and create a local repository named ‘custapp4d5c-repo’ that points to that image. Which command must be used?

A. docker build custapp4d5c-repo Dockerfile
B. docker build -t acustapp4d5c-repo Dockerfile.txt
C. docker build custapp4d5c-repo -f Dockerfile.txt
D. docker build -t custapp4d5c-repo -f Dockerfile

Answer: D
Explanation:
The -t flag is used to specify the name (and optionally a tag) of the image.
The -f flag is used to specify the location of the Dockerfile.
The . at the end represents the build context, which is the current directory.

QUESTION 456
A web app must be accessible from computers and mobile devices. It must maintain the same data structure on both types of devices. What is the advantage of using the MVC design pattern for this app?

A. to asynchronously update the graphical interface
B. to define different algorithms for data manipulation
C. to separate the logic of the graphic interface of the different devices
D. to have only one instance of the objects that contain the data

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QUESTION 1
Why is it necessary to update firmware to the latest version?

A. To support the latest operating systems and applications
B. To patch firmware in the kernel of the operating system
C. To correct security holes and weaknesses
D. To explore new hardware features

Answer: C
Explanation:
Keeping firmware up to date is necessary to patch security vulnerabilities and weaknesses that could be exploited by threat actors. Vendors release firmware updates to correct security flaws, enhance stability, and ensure compatibility with updated security protocols.

QUESTION 2
How do threat actors launch ransomware attacks on organizations?

A. They implant malware to collect data from the corporation’s financial system.
B. They deface an organization’s public-facing website.
C. They lock data and deny access to the data until they receive money.
D. They secretly spy on employees and collect employees’ personal information.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Ransomware is a type of malware that denies access to data by encrypting it and demands payment from the victim to restore access. Threat actors may deliver ransomware through phishing emails, malicious downloads, or exploiting vulnerabilities in exposed systems.

QUESTION 3
You are planning to work from home. Your company requires that you connect to the company network through a VPN.
Which three critical functions do VPNs provide to remote workers? (Choose three.)

A. WAN management
B. Authorization of users
C. Integrity of data
D. Authentication of users
E. Confidentiality of information
F. Password management

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QUESTION 413
After a network security breach, an engineer must strengthen the security of the corporate network. Upper management must be regularly updated with a high-level overview of any occurring network threats. Which access must the engineer provide upper management to view the required data from Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center?

A. Analysis > Status with a sliding time window of one day
B. Events by priority and classification and set a sliding time window of one day
C. Reports with a daily recurring task that generates based on the network risk report template
D. Security Intelligence Statistics dashboard set to Show the Last option to one day

Answer: C

QUESTION 414
An engineer is troubleshooting the upgrade of a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense device on the Secure Firewall Management Center 7.0 GUI. The engineer wants to collect the upgrade data and logs. Which two actions must the engineer take? (Choose two.)

A. View the system and troubleshooting details.
B. Select the Secure Firewall Threat Defense device properties.
C. Select the Secure Firewall Management Center device.
D. Access the Health Events page.
E. Access the Health Monitor page.

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QUESTION 298
A network administrator reviews the attack risk report and notices several low-impact attacks. What does this type of attack indicate?

A. All attacks are listed as low until manually recategorized.
B. The host is not vulnerable to those attacks.
C. The host is not within the administrator’s environment.
D. The attacks are not dangerous to the network.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 69
Which three characteristics of a rogue AP pose a high security risk? (Choose three.)

A. open authentication
B. high RSSI
C. foreign SSID
D. accepts clients
E. low RSSI
F. distant location

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/74/configuration/guides/consolida ted/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED_chapter_010111001.html

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QUESTION 12
A Webex Teams bot receives a Webhook payload, which notifies the bot that a message was created in a space. Which two API requests must be issued for the bot to answer the author of the message? (Choose two.)

A. POST /v1/messages
B. GET /v1/messages/{messageId}
C. GET /v1/webhooks/{webhookId}
D. PUT /v1/messages/{messageId}
E. POST /v1/webhooks

Answer: AC

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QUESTION 76
How do endpoints inside an SD-Access network reach resources outside the fabric?

A. a VRF fusion router is used to map resources in one VN to another VN
B. Fabric borders use VRFs to map VNs to VRFs
C. SD-Access transit links are used to transport encapsulated traffic from one fabric to another
D. A fabric edge is used to de-encapsulate VXLAN traffic to normal IP traffic then transported over the outside network

Answer: B
Explanation:
Fabric border routers handle the ingress & egress traffic for the SD-Access fabric, they are responsible for translating the policy, VRF & SGT information between the SD-Access fabric and the external networks.

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