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QUESTION 242
A wireless engineer is preparing for a meeting with a customer to discuss a new wireless network design. The customer is a company that develops code and occupies a three-story building. Which two information points does a presite survey questionnaire contain? (Choose two.)

A. client devices that will connect to the wireless network
B. access point density required
C. total number of access points in use
D. applications that will run over the wireless network
E. model of the wireless controller

Answer: AD
Explanation:
A presite survey questionnaire gathers details on the types of client devices (e.g., laptops, tablets, VoIP handsets) and their radios to determine RF behavior and compatibility. It also captures application requirements (voice, video, data throughput) so you can size capacity and tailor QoS and roaming parameters appropriately.

QUESTION 243
A small customer has a legacy autonomous mode Wi-Fi deployment that provides a low-density and low-capacity service. The customer wants to update and replace this deployment with the latest Wi-Fi technology but has a fixed budget that will pay only to replace the APs. Which architectural controller deployment model suits this requirement?

A. cloud
B. unified
C. embedded
D. fabric

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[2025-December-New]Braindump2go 300-425 Exam Questions PDF Free[Q242-Q312]

2025/December Latest Braindump2go 300-425 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindump2go 300-425 Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 242
A wireless engineer is preparing for a meeting with a customer to discuss a new wireless network design. The customer is a company that develops code and occupies a three-story building. Which two information points does a presite survey questionnaire contain? (Choose two.)

A. client devices that will connect to the wireless network
B. access point density required
C. total number of access points in use
D. applications that will run over the wireless network
E. model of the wireless controller

Answer: AD
Explanation:
A presite survey questionnaire gathers details on the types of client devices (e.g., laptops, tablets, VoIP handsets) and their radios to determine RF behavior and compatibility. It also captures application requirements (voice, video, data throughput) so you can size capacity and tailor QoS and roaming parameters appropriately.

QUESTION 243
A small customer has a legacy autonomous mode Wi-Fi deployment that provides a low-density and low-capacity service. The customer wants to update and replace this deployment with the latest Wi-Fi technology but has a fixed budget that will pay only to replace the APs. Which architectural controller deployment model suits this requirement?

A. cloud
B. unified
C. embedded
D. fabric

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QUESTION 245
Which type of identity store allows for creating single-use access credentials in Cisco ISE?

A. OpenLDAP
B. Local
C. PKI
D. RSA SecurID

Answer: D

QUESTION 246
A network engineer needs to deploy 802.1x using Cisco ISE in a wired network environment where thin clients download their system image upon bootup using PXE. For which mode must the switch ports be configured?

A. closed
B. restricted
C. monitor
D. low-impact

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QUESTION 431
An engineer is configuring device-hardening on a router in order to prevent credentials from being seen if the router configuration was compromised. Which command should be used?

A. service password-encryption
B. username <username> privilege 15 password <password>
C. service password-recovery
D. username < username> password <password>

Answer: A

QUESTION 432
Which security solution protects users leveraging DNS-layer security?

A. Cisco ISE
B. Cisco FTD
C. Cisco Umbrella
D. Cisco ASA

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QUESTION 109
An engineer must perform a Cisco ACI fabric upgrade that minimizes the impact on user traffic and allows only permitted users to perform an upgrade.
Which two configuration steps should be taken to meet these requirements?

A. Divide Cisco APIC controllers into two or more maintenance groups.
B. Grant tenant-ext-admin access to a user who performs an upgrade
C. Combine all switches into an upgrade group.
D. Divide switches into two or more maintenance groups.
E. Grant the fabric administrator role to a user who performs an upgrade.

Answer: DE

QUESTION 110
A customer creates Layer 3 connectivity to the outside network. However, only border leaf switches start receiving destination updates to other networks from the newly created L3Out. The updates must also be propagated to other Cisco ACI leaf switches. The L3Out is linked with the EPGs via a contract. Which action must be taken in the pod policy group to accomplish this goal?

A. Apply a BGP route reflector policy.
B. Enable a COOP policy.
C. Configure an IS-IS policy.
D. Implement an access management policy.

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QUESTION 448
A mid-size service provider uses L2VPN as its standard for connectivity between offices. A small company wants the service provider to connect the company’s two sites across the service provider core. To meet service requirements, the service provider must extend the Layer 2 domain between the company’s two locations. Which configuration must the engineer apply to implement an attachment circuit between the two sites using a VLAN tag of 12?

A. interface TenGigE0/0/0/1.0 l2transport
encapsulation dot1q 12
rewrite ingress tag pop 13
B. interface TenGigE0/0/0/1.0 l2transport
encapsulation dot1q 12
C. interface TenGigE0/0/0/1.0 l2transport
encapsulation dot1q 12
rewrite ingress tag translate 1-to-1 dot1q 2
D. interface TenGigE0/0/0/1.0 l2transport
encapsulation dot1q 12
rewrite ingress tag push dot1q 21 symmetric

Answer: B
Explanation:
For connecting the two sites across the service provider core and extending the Layer 2 domain, the service provider needs to configure an attachment circuit with the specified VLAN tag (12). The configuration includes:
– interface TenGigE0/0/0/1.0 l2transport: Sets up the interface for Layer 2 transport mode.
– encapsulation dot1q 12: Configures the VLAN tag (12) for the attachment circuit, ensuring that the Layer 2 traffic is properly encapsulated and forwarded across the provider’s MPLS core.

QUESTION 449
According to RFC5305 on IS-IS extensions for traffic engineering, what is the 4-octet sub-TLV type 10 of extended IS-IS reachability TLV type 22?

A. TE default metric
B. maximum reservable link bandwidth
C. administrative group (color)
D. IPv4 neighbor address

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QUESTION 436
Which two features are used to allow a nondisruptive upgrade for the ISSU process? (Choose two.)

A. connectivity management processor
B. nonstop forwarding
C. graceful restart
D. stateful switchover
E. advanced services license

Answer: BD

QUESTION 437
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a Fibre Channel device alias named TEST for a device attached to port fc1/9 of a Cisco Nexus Series Switch. Which command set completes the configuration?

A. SITE-A-MDS-Fabric-A# configure terminal
SITE-A-MDS-Fabric-A (config)# device-alias database
SITE-A-MDS-Fabric-A (config-device-alias-db)# device-alias name TEST pwwn
50:00:14:42:d0:0 c:f5:20
SITE-A-MDS-Fabric-A (config-device-alias-db)# exit
B. SITE-A-MDS-Fabric-A# configure terminal
SITE-A-MDS-Fabric-A (config)# device-alias database
SITE-A-MDS-Fabric-A (config-device-alias-db)# device-alias name TEST pwwn
50:00:14:40:47:b0:0 c:f5
SITE-A-MDS-Fabric-A (config-device-alias-db)# device-alias commit
C. SITE-A-MDS-Fabric-A# configure terminal
SITE-A-MDS-Fabric-A (config)# device-alias database
SITE-A-MDS-Fabric-A (config-device-alias-db)# device-alias name TEST pwwn
50:00:14:42:d0:0 c:f5:20
SITE-A-MDS-Fabric-A (config-device-alias-db)# device-alias commit
D. SITE-A-MDS-Fabric-A# device-alias database
SITE-A-MDS-Fabric-A (config-device-alias-db)# device-alias name TEST pwwn
50:00:14:40:47:b0:0 c:f5
SITE-A-MDS-Fabric-A (config-device-alias-db)# device-alias commit

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QUESTION 1028
Which DNS record type is required to allow APs to discover a WLC by using DNS on IPv4?

A. NS
B. A
C. SOA
D. MX

Answer: B

QUESTION 1029
What is modularity in network design?

A. ability to bundle several functions into a single layer of the network
B. ability to create self-contained, repeatable sections of the network
C. ability to self-heal the network to prevent service outages
D. ability to scale and accommodate future needs of the network

Answer: D
Explanation:
You can design a campus network in a logical manner, using a modular approach. In this approach, each layer of the hierarchical network model can be broken into basic functional units. These units, or modules, then can be sized appropriately and connected, while allowing for future scalability and expansion.

QUESTION 1030
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured TACACS+ to authenticate remote users, but the configuration is not working as expected. Which configuration must be applied to enable access?

A. R1 (config)# ip tacacs source-interface Gig 0/0
B. R1 (config)# tacacs server prod
R1(config-server-tacacs)# port 1020
C. R1 (config)# aaa authorization exec default group tacacs+ local
D. R1 (config)# tacacs server prod
R1(config-server-tacacs)# key cisco123

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QUESTION 1
Which routes does the overlay management protocol advertise in an SD-WAN overlay?

A. underlay, MPLS, and overlay
B. primary, backup, and load-balanced
C. prefix, TLOC, and service
D. Internet, MPLS, and backup

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A network solution is being designed for a company that connects to multiple Internet service providers. Which Cisco proprietary BGP path attribute will influence outbound traffic flow?

A. Local Preference
B. MED
C. Weight
D. AS Path
E. Community

Answer: C
Explanation:
Weight is Cisco proprietary and is the first decision of all path attributes to influence outbound traffic on a singular router. Weight is non-transitive and will only influence routes as they leave that device.

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured on all links. The spoke nodes have been configured as EIGRP stubs, and the WAN links to R3 have higher bandwidth and lower delay than the links to R4.
When a link failure occurs at the R1-R2 link, what happens to traffic on R1 that is destined for a subnet attached to R2?

A. R1 has no route to R2 and drops the traffic
B. R1 load-balances across the paths through R3 and R4 to reach R2
C. R1 forwards the traffic to R3, but R3 drops the traffic
D. R1 forwards the traffic to R3 in order to reach R2

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QUESTION 1
Which device information is required on PNP/ZTP to support the zero touch onboarding process?

A. serial and chassis numbers
B. interface IP address
C. public DNS entry
D. system IP address

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/sd-wan-wan-edge-onboarding-deploy-guide-2020jan.pdf

QUESTION 2
Which configuration step is taken on vManage after WAN Edge list is uploaded to support the on-boarding process before the device comes online?

A. Verify the device certificate
B. Enable the ZTP process
C. Set the device as valid
D. Send the list to controllers

Answer: C+
Explanation:

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/sdwan-wan-edge-onboarding-deploy-guide-2020nov.pdf

QUESTION 3
Which SD-WAN component is configured to enforce a policy to redirect branch-to-branch traffic toward a network service such as a firewall or IPS?

A. vBond
B. vSmart
C. WAN Edge
D. Firewall

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QUESTION 409
An engineer is creating a policy that overrides normal routing behavior.if the route to a destination of 10.100.100.0/24 is withdrawn from the routing Table, the policy must direct traffic to a next hop of 10.1 1.1. if the route is present in the routing table, then normal forwarding must occur.
Which
configuration meets the requirements?

A. access-list 100 permit ip any any
!
route-map POLICY permit 10
match ip address 100
set ip next-hop recursive 10.1.1.1
B. access-list 100 permit ip any 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 !
Route-map POLICY permit 10
match ip address 100
set ip default next-hop 10.1.1.1
C. access-list 100 permit ip any 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 !
route-map POLICY permit 10
match ip address 100
set ip next-hop 10.1.1.1
!
route map POLICY permit 20
D. access-list 100 permit ip any 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 !
route map POLICY permit 10
match ip address 100
Set ip next-hop recursive 10.1.1.1
!
route-map POLICY permit 20

Answer: D

QUESTION 410
Refer to the exhibit. After a new regional office is set up, not all guests can access the internet via guest Wi Fi. Clients are getting the correct IP address from guest Wi-Fi VLAN 364.
Which action resolves the issue ?

A. Allow 10.66.46.0/23 in the outbound ACL
B. Allow DNS traffic through the outbound ACL
C. Allow DNS traffic through the inbound ACL
D. Allow 10.66.46.0/23 in the inbound ACL

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QUESTION 390
Which statement describes indicators of attack?

A. A malicious file is detected by the AV software.
B. Internal hosts communicate with countries outside of the business range.
C. Phishing attempts on an organization are blocked by mail AV.
D. Critical patches are missing.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Indicators of Attack (IoA) refer to observable behaviors or artifacts that suggest a security breach or ongoing attack.
When internal hosts communicate with countries outside the business range, it may indicate data exfiltration or command-and-control communication to an external threat actor. Unlike Indicators of Compromise (IoC) which indicate that a system has already been compromised, IoAs are often used to identify malicious activity in its early stages. Monitoring for unusual outbound connections is a crucial aspect of detecting advanced persistent threats (APTs) and other sophisticated attacks.

QUESTION 391
Which type of data is used to detect anomalies in the network?

A. statistical data
B. metadata
C. transaction data
D. alert data

Answer: A
Explanation:
Statistical data is crucial for detecting anomalies within a network because it provides a baseline of normal behavior.
Anomaly detection involves comparing current network data against historical statistical data to identify deviations from expected patterns.
This method helps in identifying unusual activities that could signify a security threat, such as unusual login attempts, data transfers, or access patterns. Statistical data analysis tools use metrics such as mean, variance, and standard deviation to flag anomalies, aiding in proactive threat detection.

QUESTION 392
What is data encapsulation?

A. Data is encrypted backwards, which makes it unusable.
B. Multiple hosts can be supported with only a few public IP addresses.
C. A protocol of the sending host adds additional data to the packet header.
D. Browsing history is erased automatically with every session.

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QUESTION 1
Why is it necessary to update firmware to the latest version?

A. To support the latest operating systems and applications
B. To patch firmware in the kernel of the operating system
C. To correct security holes and weaknesses
D. To explore new hardware features

Answer: C
Explanation:
Keeping firmware up to date is necessary to patch security vulnerabilities and weaknesses that could be exploited by threat actors. Vendors release firmware updates to correct security flaws, enhance stability, and ensure compatibility with updated security protocols.

QUESTION 2
How do threat actors launch ransomware attacks on organizations?

A. They implant malware to collect data from the corporation’s financial system.
B. They deface an organization’s public-facing website.
C. They lock data and deny access to the data until they receive money.
D. They secretly spy on employees and collect employees’ personal information.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Ransomware is a type of malware that denies access to data by encrypting it and demands payment from the victim to restore access. Threat actors may deliver ransomware through phishing emails, malicious downloads, or exploiting vulnerabilities in exposed systems.

QUESTION 3
You are planning to work from home. Your company requires that you connect to the company network through a VPN.
Which three critical functions do VPNs provide to remote workers? (Choose three.)

A. WAN management
B. Authorization of users
C. Integrity of data
D. Authentication of users
E. Confidentiality of information
F. Password management

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Supporting Cisco Devices for Field Technicians (FLDTEC 800-150) is a 120-minute exam associated with the Cisco Certified Technician Certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to on-site replacement of Cisco technologies across routing, switching, data
center, UCS, and collaboration platforms. This includes hardware identification, cabling, configuration backup and restoration, and software upgrades/downgrades. The Cisco Certified Technician course helps candidates prepare for this exam.

More general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam: https://learningcontent.cisco.com/documents/marketing/exam-topics/800-150_FLDTEC_v1.0.pdf

Question: 1
[Cisco Equipment and Related Hardware]
What is the primary role of a switch in a local area network?

A. to route data packets between different networks
B. to encrypt data transmissions for security
C. to divide the network into separate collision domains
D. to provide wireless connectivity to LAN devices

Answer

Explanation:

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QUESTION 293
Which security architecture component offers streamlined security operations, ease of use, and visibility across all network security elements, independent of location or form factor?

A. threat-centric protection
B. integrated actionable intelligence
C. distributed enforcement
D. central command and control

Answer: D
Explanation:
Distributed Enforcement: Support for any form factor in any location. Network security services must be available in any location, in any form factor, and in any combination. This allows the security team to apply granular network security policies to network segments, flows, applications, or specific groups of users.

 

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QUESTION 69
Which three characteristics of a rogue AP pose a high security risk? (Choose three.)

A. open authentication
B. high RSSI
C. foreign SSID
D. accepts clients
E. low RSSI
F. distant location

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/74/configuration/guides/consolida ted/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED_chapter_010111001.html

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QUESTION 51
After configuring a Cisco CallManager Express with Cisco Unity Express, inbound calls from the PSTN SIP trunk receive a ring tone for 20 seconds and then a busy signal instead of voicemail. Which configuration fixes this problem?

A. Router(config)# voice service voip
Router(conf-voi-serv)#allow-connections h323 to h323
B. Router(config)#dial-peer voice 2 voip
Router(config-dial-peer)#no vad
C. Router(config)# voice service voip
Router(conf-voi-serv)#allow-connections voice-mail mod
D. Router(config)# voice service voip
Router(conf-voi-serv)#no supplementary-service sip moved-temporarily

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://community.cisco.com/t5/ip-telephony-and-phones/help-please-callers-get-busy-signal-instead-of-aim-cue-voicemail/td-p/1911590

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QUESTION 58
Which DNS record and port combination must be resolved externally for Mobile and Remote Access to be used?

A. _collab-edge on port 8443
B. _cisco-uds-edge on port 5061
C. _collab-edge on port 5061
D. _cisco-uds on port 8443

Answer: A
Explanation:
8443 is required from the public IP address of the expressway for collab-edge SRV records.

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QUESTION 59
A network administrator must troubleshoot a network issue using Cisco DNA Center.
Which API request helps to determine issue details, impacted hosts, or suggested actions for the resolution?

A. /dna/intent/v1/issues
B. /dna/intent/api/v1/issues
C. /dna/intent/v1/issue-enrichment-details
D. /dna/api/v1/client-health/issues

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://developer.cisco.com/docs/dna-center/#!get-issue-enrichment-details

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QUESTION 110
Cisco TelePresence Management Suite is used to manage video conference calls. Which statement is true?

A. Booking a video call can be done only by the administrator of the system or Microsoft Exchange.
B. A video endpoint must be on the same network to be part of a booking.
C. Cisco Unified communication manager registered systems can never use IP dialing from Cisco TMS.
D. A video endpoint must be registered in Cisco TMS to be part of a booking.

Answer: A

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