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QUESTION 1
Which routes does the overlay management protocol advertise in an SD-WAN overlay?

A. underlay, MPLS, and overlay
B. primary, backup, and load-balanced
C. prefix, TLOC, and service
D. Internet, MPLS, and backup

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A network solution is being designed for a company that connects to multiple Internet service providers. Which Cisco proprietary BGP path attribute will influence outbound traffic flow?

A. Local Preference
B. MED
C. Weight
D. AS Path
E. Community

Answer: C
Explanation:
Weight is Cisco proprietary and is the first decision of all path attributes to influence outbound traffic on a singular router. Weight is non-transitive and will only influence routes as they leave that device.

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured on all links. The spoke nodes have been configured as EIGRP stubs, and the WAN links to R3 have higher bandwidth and lower delay than the links to R4.
When a link failure occurs at the R1-R2 link, what happens to traffic on R1 that is destined for a subnet attached to R2?

A. R1 has no route to R2 and drops the traffic
B. R1 load-balances across the paths through R3 and R4 to reach R2
C. R1 forwards the traffic to R3, but R3 drops the traffic
D. R1 forwards the traffic to R3 in order to reach R2

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QUESTION 1
Which device information is required on PNP/ZTP to support the zero touch onboarding process?

A. serial and chassis numbers
B. interface IP address
C. public DNS entry
D. system IP address

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/sd-wan-wan-edge-onboarding-deploy-guide-2020jan.pdf

QUESTION 2
Which configuration step is taken on vManage after WAN Edge list is uploaded to support the on-boarding process before the device comes online?

A. Verify the device certificate
B. Enable the ZTP process
C. Set the device as valid
D. Send the list to controllers

Answer: C+
Explanation:

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/sdwan-wan-edge-onboarding-deploy-guide-2020nov.pdf

QUESTION 3
Which SD-WAN component is configured to enforce a policy to redirect branch-to-branch traffic toward a network service such as a firewall or IPS?

A. vBond
B. vSmart
C. WAN Edge
D. Firewall

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QUESTION 409
An engineer is creating a policy that overrides normal routing behavior.if the route to a destination of 10.100.100.0/24 is withdrawn from the routing Table, the policy must direct traffic to a next hop of 10.1 1.1. if the route is present in the routing table, then normal forwarding must occur.
Which
configuration meets the requirements?

A. access-list 100 permit ip any any
!
route-map POLICY permit 10
match ip address 100
set ip next-hop recursive 10.1.1.1
B. access-list 100 permit ip any 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 !
Route-map POLICY permit 10
match ip address 100
set ip default next-hop 10.1.1.1
C. access-list 100 permit ip any 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 !
route-map POLICY permit 10
match ip address 100
set ip next-hop 10.1.1.1
!
route map POLICY permit 20
D. access-list 100 permit ip any 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 !
route map POLICY permit 10
match ip address 100
Set ip next-hop recursive 10.1.1.1
!
route-map POLICY permit 20

Answer: D

QUESTION 410
Refer to the exhibit. After a new regional office is set up, not all guests can access the internet via guest Wi Fi. Clients are getting the correct IP address from guest Wi-Fi VLAN 364.
Which action resolves the issue ?

A. Allow 10.66.46.0/23 in the outbound ACL
B. Allow DNS traffic through the outbound ACL
C. Allow DNS traffic through the inbound ACL
D. Allow 10.66.46.0/23 in the inbound ACL

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QUESTION 390
Which statement describes indicators of attack?

A. A malicious file is detected by the AV software.
B. Internal hosts communicate with countries outside of the business range.
C. Phishing attempts on an organization are blocked by mail AV.
D. Critical patches are missing.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Indicators of Attack (IoA) refer to observable behaviors or artifacts that suggest a security breach or ongoing attack.
When internal hosts communicate with countries outside the business range, it may indicate data exfiltration or command-and-control communication to an external threat actor. Unlike Indicators of Compromise (IoC) which indicate that a system has already been compromised, IoAs are often used to identify malicious activity in its early stages. Monitoring for unusual outbound connections is a crucial aspect of detecting advanced persistent threats (APTs) and other sophisticated attacks.

QUESTION 391
Which type of data is used to detect anomalies in the network?

A. statistical data
B. metadata
C. transaction data
D. alert data

Answer: A
Explanation:
Statistical data is crucial for detecting anomalies within a network because it provides a baseline of normal behavior.
Anomaly detection involves comparing current network data against historical statistical data to identify deviations from expected patterns.
This method helps in identifying unusual activities that could signify a security threat, such as unusual login attempts, data transfers, or access patterns. Statistical data analysis tools use metrics such as mean, variance, and standard deviation to flag anomalies, aiding in proactive threat detection.

QUESTION 392
What is data encapsulation?

A. Data is encrypted backwards, which makes it unusable.
B. Multiple hosts can be supported with only a few public IP addresses.
C. A protocol of the sending host adds additional data to the packet header.
D. Browsing history is erased automatically with every session.

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QUESTION 1
Why is it necessary to update firmware to the latest version?

A. To support the latest operating systems and applications
B. To patch firmware in the kernel of the operating system
C. To correct security holes and weaknesses
D. To explore new hardware features

Answer: C
Explanation:
Keeping firmware up to date is necessary to patch security vulnerabilities and weaknesses that could be exploited by threat actors. Vendors release firmware updates to correct security flaws, enhance stability, and ensure compatibility with updated security protocols.

QUESTION 2
How do threat actors launch ransomware attacks on organizations?

A. They implant malware to collect data from the corporation’s financial system.
B. They deface an organization’s public-facing website.
C. They lock data and deny access to the data until they receive money.
D. They secretly spy on employees and collect employees’ personal information.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Ransomware is a type of malware that denies access to data by encrypting it and demands payment from the victim to restore access. Threat actors may deliver ransomware through phishing emails, malicious downloads, or exploiting vulnerabilities in exposed systems.

QUESTION 3
You are planning to work from home. Your company requires that you connect to the company network through a VPN.
Which three critical functions do VPNs provide to remote workers? (Choose three.)

A. WAN management
B. Authorization of users
C. Integrity of data
D. Authentication of users
E. Confidentiality of information
F. Password management

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Supporting Cisco Devices for Field Technicians (FLDTEC 800-150) is a 120-minute exam associated with the Cisco Certified Technician Certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to on-site replacement of Cisco technologies across routing, switching, data
center, UCS, and collaboration platforms. This includes hardware identification, cabling, configuration backup and restoration, and software upgrades/downgrades. The Cisco Certified Technician course helps candidates prepare for this exam.

More general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam: https://learningcontent.cisco.com/documents/marketing/exam-topics/800-150_FLDTEC_v1.0.pdf

Question: 1
[Cisco Equipment and Related Hardware]
What is the primary role of a switch in a local area network?

A. to route data packets between different networks
B. to encrypt data transmissions for security
C. to divide the network into separate collision domains
D. to provide wireless connectivity to LAN devices

Answer

Explanation:

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QUESTION 293
Which security architecture component offers streamlined security operations, ease of use, and visibility across all network security elements, independent of location or form factor?

A. threat-centric protection
B. integrated actionable intelligence
C. distributed enforcement
D. central command and control

Answer: D
Explanation:
Distributed Enforcement: Support for any form factor in any location. Network security services must be available in any location, in any form factor, and in any combination. This allows the security team to apply granular network security policies to network segments, flows, applications, or specific groups of users.

 

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QUESTION 69
Which three characteristics of a rogue AP pose a high security risk? (Choose three.)

A. open authentication
B. high RSSI
C. foreign SSID
D. accepts clients
E. low RSSI
F. distant location

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/74/configuration/guides/consolida ted/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED_chapter_010111001.html

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QUESTION 51
After configuring a Cisco CallManager Express with Cisco Unity Express, inbound calls from the PSTN SIP trunk receive a ring tone for 20 seconds and then a busy signal instead of voicemail. Which configuration fixes this problem?

A. Router(config)# voice service voip
Router(conf-voi-serv)#allow-connections h323 to h323
B. Router(config)#dial-peer voice 2 voip
Router(config-dial-peer)#no vad
C. Router(config)# voice service voip
Router(conf-voi-serv)#allow-connections voice-mail mod
D. Router(config)# voice service voip
Router(conf-voi-serv)#no supplementary-service sip moved-temporarily

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://community.cisco.com/t5/ip-telephony-and-phones/help-please-callers-get-busy-signal-instead-of-aim-cue-voicemail/td-p/1911590

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QUESTION 58
Which DNS record and port combination must be resolved externally for Mobile and Remote Access to be used?

A. _collab-edge on port 8443
B. _cisco-uds-edge on port 5061
C. _collab-edge on port 5061
D. _cisco-uds on port 8443

Answer: A
Explanation:
8443 is required from the public IP address of the expressway for collab-edge SRV records.

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QUESTION 59
A network administrator must troubleshoot a network issue using Cisco DNA Center.
Which API request helps to determine issue details, impacted hosts, or suggested actions for the resolution?

A. /dna/intent/v1/issues
B. /dna/intent/api/v1/issues
C. /dna/intent/v1/issue-enrichment-details
D. /dna/api/v1/client-health/issues

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://developer.cisco.com/docs/dna-center/#!get-issue-enrichment-details

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QUESTION 110
Cisco TelePresence Management Suite is used to manage video conference calls. Which statement is true?

A. Booking a video call can be done only by the administrator of the system or Microsoft Exchange.
B. A video endpoint must be on the same network to be part of a booking.
C. Cisco Unified communication manager registered systems can never use IP dialing from Cisco TMS.
D. A video endpoint must be registered in Cisco TMS to be part of a booking.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 76
How do endpoints inside an SD-Access network reach resources outside the fabric?

A. a VRF fusion router is used to map resources in one VN to another VN
B. Fabric borders use VRFs to map VNs to VRFs
C. SD-Access transit links are used to transport encapsulated traffic from one fabric to another
D. A fabric edge is used to de-encapsulate VXLAN traffic to normal IP traffic then transported over the outside network

Answer: B
Explanation:
Fabric border routers handle the ingress & egress traffic for the SD-Access fabric, they are responsible for translating the policy, VRF & SGT information between the SD-Access fabric and the external networks.

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QUESTION 52
A wireless deployment in a high-density environment is being used by vendors to process credit card payment transactions via handheld mobile scanners. The scanners are having problems roaming between access points in the environment.
Which feature on the wireless controller should have been incorporated in the design?

A. RX SOP
B. 802.11w
C. AP Heartbeat Timeout
D. Application Visibility Control

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/85/configguide/b_cg85/advanced_wireless_tuning.html

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QUESTION 354
What is the function of BFD?

A. It provides uniform failure detection regardless of media type.
B. It creates high CPU utilization on hardware deployments.
C. It negotiates to the highest version if the neighbor version differs.
D. It provides uniform failure detection on the same media type.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 517
A network engineer must configure a router to send logging messages to a syslog server based on these requirements:
uses syslog IP address: 10.10.10.1
uses a reliable protocol
must not use any well-known TCP/UDP ports
Which configuration must be used?

A. logging host 10.10.10.1 transport tcp port 1024
B. logging origin-id 10.10.10.1
C. logging host 10.10.10.1 transport udp port 1023
D. logging host 10.10.10.1 transport udp port 1024

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which technique is used to evade detection from security products by executing arbitrary code in the address space of a separate live operation?

A. process injection
B. privilege escalation
C. GPO modification++g/
D. token manipulation

Answer: A

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QUESTION 29
What is a use of the Overlay Multicast TEP in Cisco ACI Multi-Site communication?

A. to perform headend replication
B. to act as the source IP for BUM traffic
C. to establish MP-BGP adjacencies with remote spines
D. to send and receive unicast VXLAN data plane traffic

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centric-infrastructure/white-paper-c11-739609.html#CiscoACIMultiSiteoverlaydataplane

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QUESTION 77
Which NIST IR category stakeholder is responsible for coordinating incident response among various business units, minimizing damage, and reporting to regulatory agencies?

A. CSIRT
B. PSIRT
C. public affairs
D. management

Answer: D

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QUESTION 95
A user needs full read-only visibility into an ACI fabric. Which predefined security domain can be used to enable such visibility?

A. common
B. all
C. infra
D. fabric

Answer: B

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