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QUESTION 47
Which protocol is used to determine the NBMA address on the other end of a tunnel when mGRE is used?

A. NHRP
B. IPsec
C. MP-BGP
D. OSPF

Answer: A
Explanation:
NHRP is used to map tunnel IP addresses to “physical” or “real” IP addresses (NBMA addresses), used by endpoint routers. It resolves private addresses (those behind mGRE and optionally IPsec) to a public address.

QUESTION 48
Which two protocols can cause TCP starvation? (Choose two)

A. TFTP
B. SNMP
C. SMTP
D. HTTPS
E. FTP

Answer: AB

QUESTION 49
Which two statements about VRF-Lite configurations are true? (Choose two.)

A. They support the exchange of MPLS labels
B. Different customers can have overlapping IP addresses on different VPNs
C. They support a maximum of 512.000 routes
D. Each customer has its own dedicated TCAM resources
E. Each customer has its own private routing table.
F. They support IS-IS

Answer: BE

QUESTION 50
A network engineer needs to verify IP SLA operations on an interface that shows on indication of excessive traffic. Which command should the engineer use to complete this action?

A. show frequency
B. show track
C. show reachability
D. show threshold

Answer: B

QUESTION 51
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to generate a summary route in OSPF for network 10.0.0.0/8, but the summary route does not show up in the routing table. Why is the summary route missing?

A. The summary route is not visible on this router, but it is visible on other OSPF routers in the same area.
B. The summary-address command is used only for summary prefixes between areas.
C. The summary route is visible only in the OSPF database not in the routing table.
D. There is no route for a subnet inside 10.0.0.0/8, so the summary route is not generated.

Answer: D
Explanation:
The “summary-address” is only used to create aggregate addresses for OSPF at an autonomous system boundary. It means this command should only be used on the ASBR when you are trying to summarize externally redistributed routes from another protocol domain or you have a NSSA area. But a requirement to create a summarized route is:
“The ASBR compares the summary route’s range of addresses with all routes redistributed into OSPF on that ASBR to find any subordinate subnets (subnets that sit inside the summary route range). If at least one subordinate subnet exists, the ASBR advertises the summary route.”
But in this case we found no prefix that belongs to 10.0.0.0/8. Therefore a summarized route for this subnet could not be created.
Note:
+ If a prefix of this subnet exists in the routing table then after the summarization is performed, we will see such an entry:
Router# show ip route
— output omitted —
0 10.0.0.0/8 is a summary via null0

QUESTION 52
Refer to the exhibit. Why is user authentication being rejected?

A. The TACACS+ server expects “user” but the NT client sends “domain\user”
B. The TACACS+ server refuses the user because the user is set up for CHAP
C. The TACACS+ server is down and the user is in the local database
D. The TACACS+ server is down and the user is not in the local database

Answer: D
Explanation:
In the output we noticed that the “Destination unreachable; gateway or host down” notification while trying to communicate with the TACACS+ server. This means the TACACS+ server went down. So the next authentication method is via the local database (“Method=LOCAL”). But the authentication was failed again because of bad username, bad password or both.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-vpn/terminal-access-controller-access-control-system-tacacs-/13864-tacacs-pppdebug.html

QUESTION 53
Which is statement about IPv6 inspection is true?

A. It learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables.
B. It learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.
C. It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables.
D. It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.

Answer: B
Explanation:
IPv6 Neighbor Discovery (ND) inspection learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables. IPv6 ND inspection analyzes ND messages in order to build a trusted binding table. IPv6 ND messages that do not have valid bindings are dropped.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6_fhsec/configuration/15-sy/ip6-nd-inspect.html

QUESTION 54
Refer to the exhibit. After redistribution is enabled between the routing protocols; PC2, PC3, and PC4 cannot reach PC1.
Which action can the engineer take to solve the issue so that all the PCs are reachable?

A. Filter the prefix 10.1.1.0/24 when redistributed from OSPF to EIGRP.
B. Set the administrative distance 100 under the process on R2.
C. Filter the prefix 10.1.1.0/24 when redistributed from RIP to EIGRP.
D. Redistribute the directly connected interfaces on R2.

Answer: A
Explanation:
It seems there is a loop because of mutual redistributions among RIP, OSPF and EIGRP domains. So we should filter out the prefix 10.1.1.0/24 when redistributed from OSPF to EIGRP (the second redistribution point) to prevent routing loop.

QUESTION 55
An engineer configured the wrong default gateway for the Cisco DNA center enterprise interface during the install.
Which command must the engineer run to correct the configuration?

A. Sudo update config install
B. Sudo maglev reinstall
C. Sudo maglev-config update
D. Sudo maglev install config update

Answer: C
Explanation:
Once the appliance is configured, you cannot use the Configuration Wizard to change all Cisco DNA Center appliance settings. Changes are restricted to the following settings only:
+ Host IP address of the appliance
+ DNS server IP addresses
+ Default gateway IP address

Procedure
Using a Secure Shell (SSH) client, log into the IP address of the Enterprise port of the Cisco DNA Center appliance that needs to be reconfigured, on port 2222. For example:
ssh maglev@Enterprise-port’s-IP-address -p 2222
Step 2
When prompted, enter the Linux Password.
Step 3
Enter the following command to access the Configuration Wizard.
$ sudo maglev-config update
If prompted for the Linux Password, enter it again.

For more information about this procedure, please read https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/network-automation-and-management/dna-center/1-2/install/b_dnac_install_1_2/b_dnac_install_1_2_chapter_011.html

QUESTION 56
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures a static route on a router, but when the engineer checks the route to the destination, a different next hop is chosen. What is the reason for this?

A. The configured AD for the static route is higher than the AD of OSPF.
B. The metric of the OSPF route is lower than the metric of the static route.
C. Dynamic routing protocol always have priority over static routes.
D. The syntax of the static route is not valid do the route is not considered.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The AD of static route is manually configured to 130 which is higher than the AD of OSPF router which is 110.

QUESTION 57
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is troubleshooting BGP on a device but discovers that the clock on the device does not correspond to the time stamp of the log entries.
Which action ensures consistency between the two times?

A. Configure the logging clock synchronize command in global configuration mode
B. Configure the service timestamps log uptime command in global configuration mode
C. Configure the service timestamps log datetime localtime command in global configuration mode
D. Make sure that the clock on the device is synchronized with an NTP server

Answer: C
Explanation:
Even we had a synchronized clock but it may show different timezone so we should set the “localtime” keyword (which uses local time zone for timestamps) so that the time of logging messages is matched with our clock.

QUESTION 58
Refer to the exhibit. ISP 1 and ISP 2 directly connect to the internet.
A customer IS tracking both ISP links to achieve redundancy and cannot see the Cisco IP SLA tracking output on the router console.
Which command is missing from the IP SLA configuration?

A. Start-time now
B. Start-time 00:00
C. Start-time 0
D. Start-time immediately

Answer: A
Explanation:
Although the IP SLA tracking has been configured but it needs to activate with the “start-time now” keyword. An example of configuring IP SLA for ICMP echo and start it immedicately is shown below:
ip sla 2
icmp-echo 10.10.10.10
!
ip sla schedule 2 start-time now

QUESTION 59
Refer to the exhibit. Users in the branch network of 2001:db8:0:4::/64 report that they cannot access the Internet. Which command is issued in IPv6 router EIGRP 100 configuration mode to solve this issue?

A. Issue the eigrp stub command on R1
B. Issue the no neighbor stub command on R2.
C. Issue the eighr command on R2.
D. Issue the no eighrp stub command on R2.

Answer: B
Explanation:
In the output of R1, we see R1 has a default route to the Internet via G1/0, which is correct but R2 does not have this route. One reasonable answer of this issue is R1 has been configured as a stub router so it only advertised connected and summary routes. In Branch router output, we also see routes that are directly connected to R1 only.
Note: In this topology, only Branch router should be configured as stub, not R1 router.

QUESTION 60
Which protocol does VRF-Lite support?

A. IS-IS
B. ODR
C. EIGRP
D. IGRP

Answer: C

QUESTION 61
Refer to Exhibit. Which statement about redistribution from BGP into OSPF process 10 is true?

A. Network 172.16.1.0/24 is not redistributed into OSPF.
B. Network 10.10 10.0/24 is not redistributed into OSPF
C. Network 172.16.1.0/24 is redistributed with administrative distance of 1.
D. Network 10.10.10.0/24 is redistributed with administrative distance of 20.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The first statement of the above route-map (route-map BGP-TO-OSPF deny 10) will prevent network 172.16.1.0/24 from being redistributed into OSPF.

QUESTION 62
Which two statements about redistributing EIGRP into OSPF are true? (Choose two)

A. The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as type 3 LSAs in the OSPF database
B. The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as type 5 LSAs in the OSPF database
C. The administrative distance of the redistributed routes is 170
D. The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as OSPF external type 1
E. The redistributed EIGRP routes as placed into an OSPF area whose area ID matches the EIGRP autonomous system number
F. The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as OSPF external type 2 routes in the routing table

Answer: BF


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QUESTION 34
Which xAPI access mechanism requires separate connections for commands and notifications?

A. Serial
B. WebSocket
C. HTTP/HTTPS
D. SSH

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QUESTION 28
After an application is deployed, potential issues arise around connectivity. As part of the troubleshooting process, the IP address must be determined to ensure end-to-end communication.
Which method provides the required details using the Cisco IOx CLI?

A. ioxclient application status <iox_application>
B. ioxclient application metrics <iox_application>
C. ioxclient application getconfig <iox_application>
D. ioxclient application info <iox_application>

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QUESTION 16
Why would a Business Analyst use a consensus Business Activity Model (BAM) in gap analysis?

A. To assess how tar the organisation’s current activities support the desired situation
B. To identify how the organisation should structure itself to support the desired situation
C. To determine which activities in the desired situation are not financially feasible
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QUESTION 51
Referring to the exhibit,
***Exhibit is Missing***
Which statement is correct when traffic is received from 10.10.10.4?

A. The traffic is counted and accepted
B. The traffic is counted and rejected
C. The traffic is only rejected
D. The traffic is only accepted

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QUESTION 632
A company is developing a new service that will be accessed using TCP on a static port. A solutions architect must ensure that the service is highly available, has redundancy across Availability Zones, and is accessible using the DNS name my.service.com, which is publicly accessible. The service must use fixed address assignments so other companies can add the addresses to their allow lists.
Assuming that resources are deployed in multiple Availability Zones in a single Region, which solution will meet these requirements?

A. Create Amazon EC2 instances with an Elastic IP address for each instance.
Create a Network Load Balancer (NLB) and expose the static TCP port.
Register EC2 instances with the NLB.
Create a new name server record set named my.service.com, and assign the Elastic IP addresses of the EC2 instances to the record set.
Provide the Elastic IP addresses of the EC2 instances to the other companies to add to their allow lists.
B. Create an Amazon ECS cluster and a service definition for the application.
Create and assign public IP addresses for the ECS cluster.
Create a Network Load Balancer (NLB) and expose the TCP port.
Create a target group and assign the ECS cluster name to the NLB.
Create a new A record set named my.service.com, and assign the public IP addresses of the ECS cluster to the record set.
Provide the Public IP addresses of the ECS cluster to the other companies to add to their allow lists.
C. Create Amazon EC2 instances for the service.
Create one Elastic IP address for each Availability Zone.
Create a Network Load Balancer (NLB) and expose the assigned TCP port.
Assign the Elastic IP addresses to the NLB for each Availability Zone.
Create a target group and register the EC2 instances with the NLB.
Create a new A (alias) record set named my.service.com, and assign the NLB DNS name to the record set.
D. Create an Amazon ECS cluster and a service definition for the application.
Create and assign public IP address for each host in the cluster.
Create an Application Load Balancer (ALB) and expose the static TCP port.
Create a target group and assign the ECS service definition name to the ALB.
Create a new CNAME record set and associate the public IP addresses to the record set.
Provide the Elastic IP addresses of the Amazon EC2 instances to the other companies to add to their allow lists.

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QUESTION 30
You have an Azure subscription.
You deploy Active Directory domain controllers to Azure virtual machines.
You plan to deploy Azure for SAP workloads.
You plan to segregate the domain controllers from the SAP systems by using different virtual networks.
You need to recommend a solution to connect the virtual networks. The solution must minimize costs.
What should you recommend?

A. a site-to-site VPN
B. virtual network peering
C. user-defined routing
D. ExpressRoute

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QUESTION 76
Cisco UCS 5100 Blade Server Chassis supports which two devices? (Choose two.)

A. Blade servers
B. Fiber Extenders
C. Rack-mount Servers
D. S-Series Storage servers
E. E-Series Servers

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QUESTION 35
ConfigMap keys have been mapped to different file names using the volumes.configMap.items field. What is the result if a wrong ConfigMap key is specified?

A. The default path is not used.
B. The volume is not created.
C. The volume is created.
D. The volume is created with errors.

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QUESTION 38
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A. The order in which API calls return can be guaranteed
B. A call to an API does not block the code, but rather it allows application processing to continue
C. The end user can experience latency or performance lag while waiting for the API call to return
D. Code execution blocks or waits for the call to an API to return.
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QUESTION 174
Your Dataproc cluster runs in a single Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) network in a single subnet with range 172.16.20.128/25. There are no private IP addresses available in the VPC network. You want to add new VMs to communicate with your cluster using the minimum number of steps. What should you do?

A. Modify the existing subnet range to 172.16.20.0/24.
B. Create a new Secondary IP Range in the VPC and configure the VMs to use that range.
C. Create a new VPC network for the VMs.
Enable VPC Peering between the VMs’ VPC network and the Dataproc cluster VPC network.
D. Create a new VPC network for the VMs with a subnet of 172.32.0.0/16.
Enable VPC network Peering between the Dataproc VPC network and the VMs VPC network.
Configure a custom Route exchange.

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QUESTION 232
You have an Azure subscription that contains a resource group named RG26.
RG26 is set to the West Europe location and is used to create temporary resources for a project. RG26 contains the resources shown in the following table.

SQLDB01 is backed up to RGV1.
When the project is complete, you attempt to delete RG26 from the Azure portal. The deletion fails.
You need to delete RG26.
What should you do first?

A. Delete VM1
B. Stop VM1
C. Stop the backup of SQLDB01
D. Delete sa001

Answer: C

QUESTION 233

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QUESTION 31
Your company purchases an app named App1.
You plan to run App1 on seven Azure virtual machines in an Availability Set. The number of fault domains is set to 3. The number of update domains is set to 20. You need to identify how many App1 instances will remain available during a period of planned maintenance.
How many App1 instances should you identify?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 6
D. 7

Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Only one update domain is rebooted at a time. Here there are 7 update domain with one VM each (and 13 update domain with no VM).
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/manage-availability

QUESTION 32
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Storage v2 account named storage1. You plan to archive data to storage1.
You need to ensure that the archived data cannot be deleted for five years. The solution must prevent administrators from deleting the data. Solution: You create an Azure Blob storage container, and you configure a legal hold access policy.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Use an Azure Blob storage container, but use a time-based retention policy instead of a legal hold.
Note:
Immutable storage for Azure Blob storage enables users to store business-critical data objects in a WORM (Write Once, Read Many) state. This state makes the data non-erasable and non-modifiable for a user-specified interval. For the duration of the retention interval, blobs can be created and read, but cannot be modified or deleted. Immutable storage is available for general-purpose v2 and Blob storage accounts in all Azure regions.
Note: Set retention policies and legal holds
1.Create a new container or select an existing container to store the blobs that need to be kept in the immutable state. The container must be in a general-purpose v2 or Blob storage account.
2.Select Access policy in the container settings. Then select Add policy under Immutable blob storage.
Either
3a. To enable legal holds, select Add Policy. Select Legal hold from the drop-down menu. Or
3b. To enable time-based retention, select Time-based retention from the drop-down menu.
4. Enter the retention interval in days (acceptable values are 1 to 146000 days).
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-immutable-storage https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-immutability-policies-manage

QUESTION 33
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Storage v2 account named storage1. You plan to archive data to storage1.
You need to ensure that the archived data cannot be deleted for five years. The solution must prevent administrators from deleting the data. Solution: You create a file share and snapshots.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead you could create an Azure Blob storage container, and you configure a legal hold access policy.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-immutable-storage

QUESTION 34
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You have an Azure Storage v2 account named storage1. You plan to archive data to storage1.
You need to ensure that the archived data cannot be deleted for five years. The solution must prevent administrators from deleting the data. Solution: You create a file share, and you configure an access policy.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead of a file share, an immutable Blob storage is required.
Time-based retention policy support: Users can set policies to store data for a specified interval. When a time-based retention policy is set, blobs can be created and read, but not modified or deleted. After the retention period has expired, blobs can be deleted but not overwritten.
Note: Set retention policies and legal holds
1.Create a new container or select an existing container to store the blobs that need to be kept in the immutable state. The container must be in a general-purpose v2 or Blob storage account.
2.Select Access policy in the container settings. Then select Add policy under Immutable blob storage.
3.To enable time-based retention, select Time-based retention from the drop-down menu.
4.Enter the retention interval in days (acceptable values are 1 to 146000 days).
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-immutable-storage https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-immutability-policies-manage

QUESTION 35
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an on-premises Hyper-V cluster that hosts 20 virtual machines. Some virtual machines run Windows Server 2016 and some run Linux. You plan to migrate the virtual machines to an Azure subscription.
You need to recommend a solution to replicate the disks of the virtual machines to Azure. The solution must ensure that the virtual machines remain available during the migration of the disks.
Solution: You recommend implementing an Azure Storage account, and then running AzCopy. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
AzCopy only copy files, not the disks. Instead use Azure Site Recovery.
Reference:https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/site-recovery-overview

QUESTION 36
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an on-premises Hyper-V cluster that hosts 20 virtual machines. Some virtual machines run Windows Server 2016 and some run Linux. You plan to migrate the virtual machines to an Azure subscription.
You need to recommend a solution to replicate the disks of the virtual machines to Azure. The solution must ensure that the virtual machines remain available during the migration of the disks.
Solution: You recommend implementing an Azure Storage account that has a file service and a blob service, and then using the Data Migration Assistant. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Data Migration Assistant is used to migrate SQL databases. Instead use Azure Site Recovery.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/site-recovery-overview

QUESTION 37
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an on-premises Hyper-V cluster that hosts 20 virtual machines. Some virtual machines run Windows Server 2016 and some run Linux. You plan to migrate the virtual machines to an Azure subscription.
You need to recommend a solution to replicate the disks of the virtual machines to Azure. The solution must ensure that the virtual machines remain available during the migration of the disks.
Solution: You recommend implementing a Recovery Services vault, and then using Azure Site Recovery. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Site Recovery can replicate on-premises VMware VMs, Hyper-V VMs, physical servers (Windows and Linux), Azure Stack VMs to Azure.
Note: Site Recovery helps ensure business continuity by keeping business apps and workloads running during outages. Site Recovery replicates workloads running on physical and virtual machines (VMs) from a primary site to a secondary location. When an outage occurs at your primary site, you fail over to secondary location, and access apps from there. After the primary location is running again, you can fail back to it.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/site-recovery-overview

QUESTION 38
You are designing a storage solution that will use Azure Blob storage. The data will be stored in a cool access tier or an archive access tier based on the access patterns of the data.
You identify the following types of infrequently accessed data: Telemetry data: Deleted after two years
Promotional material: Deleted after 14 days
Virtual machine audit data: Deleted after 200 days

A colleague recommends using the archive access tier to store the data. Which statement accurately describes the recommendation?
A. Storage costs will be based on a minimum of 30 days.
B. Access to the data is guaranteed within five minutes.
C. Access to the data is guaranteed within 30 minutes.
D. Storage costs will be based on a minimum of 180 days.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The following table shows a comparison of premium performance block blob storage, and the hot, cool, and archive access tiers.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-storage-tiers

QUESTION 39
You are planning to deploy an application named App1 that will run in containers on Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) clusters. The AKS clusters will be distributed across four Azure regions.
You need to recommend a storage solution for App1. Updated container images must be replicated automatically to all the AKS clusters. Which storage solution should you recommend?
A. Azure Cache for Redis
B. Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN)
C. Premium SKU Azure Container Registry
D. geo-redundant storage (GRS) accounts

Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Enable geo-replication for container images.
Best practice: Store your container images in Azure Container Registry and geo-replicate the registry to each AKS region.
To deploy and run your applications in AKS, you need a way to store and pull the container images. Container Registry integrates with AKS, so it can securely store your container images or Helm charts. Container Registry supports multimaster geo-replication to automatically replicate your images to Azure regions around the world.
Geo-replication is a feature of Premium SKU container registries. Note:
When you use Container Registry geo-replication to pull images from the same region, the results are:
Faster: You pull images from high-speed, low-latency network connections within the same Azure region. More reliable: If a region is unavailable, your AKS cluster pulls the images from an available container registry. Cheaper: There’s no network egress charge between datacenters.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/operator-best-practices-multi-region

QUESTION 40
You have an on-premises network and an Azure subscription. The on-premises network has several branch offices.
A branch office in Toronto contains a virtual machine named VM1 that is configured as a file server. Users access the shared files on VM1 from all the offices. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the users can access the shared files as quickly as possible if the Toronto branch office is inaccessible.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A. an Azure file share and Azure File Sync
B. a Recovery Services vault and Windows Server Backup
C. a Recovery Services vault and Azure Backup
D. Azure blob containers and Azure File Sync

Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Use Azure File Sync to centralize your organization’s file shares in Azure Files, while keeping the flexibility, performance, and compatibility of an on-premises file server. Azure File Sync transforms Windows Server into a quick cache of your Azure file share.
You need an Azure file share in the same region that you want to deploy Azure File Sync. Incorrect Answer:
C: Backups would be a slower solution.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/files/storage-sync-files-deployment-guide

QUESTION 41
You deploy two instances of an Azure web app. One instance is in the East US Azure region and the other instance is in the West US Azure region. The web app uses Azure Blob storage to deliver large files to end users.
You need to recommend a solution for delivering the files to the users. The solution must meet the following requirements: Ensure that the users receive files from the same region as the web app that they access.
Ensure that the files only need to be uploaded once.
Minimize costs.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A. Distributed File System (DFS)
B. read-access geo-redundant storage (RA-GRS)
C. Azure File Sync
D. geo-redundant storage (GRS)

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 42
You are developing a web application that provides streaming video to users. You configure the application to use continuous integration and deployment. The app must be highly available and provide a continuous streaming experience for users.
You need to recommend a solution that allows the application to store data in a geographical location that is closest to the user. What should you recommend?
A. Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN)
B. Azure Redis Cache
C. Azure App Service Web Apps
D. Azure App Service Isolated

Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN) is a global CDN solution for delivering high-bandwidth content. It can be hosted in Azure or any other location. With Azure CDN, you can cache static objects loaded from Azure Blob storage, a web application, or any publicly accessible web server, by using the closest point of presence (POP) server. Azure CDN can also accelerate dynamic content, which cannot be cached, by leveraging various network and routing optimizations.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-in/azure/cdn/

QUESTION 43
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You need to deploy resources to host a stateless web app in an Azure subscription. The solution must meet the following requirements: Provide access to the full .NET framework.
Provide redundancy if an Azure region fails.
Grant administrators access to the operating system to install custom application dependencies.
Solution: You deploy a virtual machine scale set that uses autoscaling. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead, you should deploy two Azure virtual machines to two Azure regions, and you create a Traffic Manager profile.

QUESTION 44
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You need to deploy resources to host a stateless web app in an Azure subscription. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Provide access to the full .NET framework. Provide redundancy if an Azure region fails.
Grant administrators access to the operating system to install custom application dependencies.

Solution: You deploy two Azure virtual machines to two Azure regions, and you deploy an Azure Application Gateway. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
You need to deploy two Azure virtual machines to two Azure regions, but also create a Traffic Manager profile.

QUESTION 45
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You need to deploy resources to host a stateless web app in an Azure subscription. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Provide access to the full .NET framework. Provide redundancy if an Azure region fails.
Grant administrators access to the operating system to install custom application dependencies.
Solution: You deploy two Azure virtual machines to two Azure regions, and create a Traffic Manager profile. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:


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QUESTION 31
DRAG DROP
Match the security components to the appropriate scenarios.
To answer, drag the appropriate component from the column on the left to its scenario on the right. Each component may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
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QUESTION 263
A solutions architect is designing a multi-Region disaster recovery solution for an application that will provide public API access.
The application will use Amazon EC2 instances with a userdata script to load application code and an Amazon RDS for MySQL database.
The Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is 3 hours and the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is 24 hours.
Which architecture would meet these requirements at the LOWEST cost?

A.    Use an Application Load Balancer for Region failover.
Deploy new EC2 instances with the userdata script.
Deploy separate RDS instances in each Region
B.    Use Amazon Route 53 for Region failover.
Deploy new EC2 instances with the userdata script.
Create a read replica of the RDS instance in a backup Region
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Deploy new EC2 instances with the userdata script.
Create a MySQL read replica of the RDS instance in a backup Region
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Replicate the snapshot to a backup Region

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QUESTION 148
Case Study 1 – Contoso, Ltd
Overview
General Overview
Contoso, Ltd. is a national freight company in the United States. The company has 15,000 employees.
Physical Locations
Contoso has a main office in Houston and 10 branch offices that each contains 1,000 employees.
Existing Environment
Active Directory and Microsoft Exchange Server Environments
The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains one root domain named contoso.com and 10 child domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2019.
The forest has Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) deployed.
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2019 and Microsoft Office 365.
There are 2,000 user mailboxes in Exchange Online.
Each office contains two domain controllers and two Mailbox servers. the main office also contains an Edge transport server.
The organization contains 100 public folders. The folders contain 80 GB of content.
All email messages sent to contoso.com are delivered to Exchange Online. All messages sent to on-premises mailboxes are routed through the Edge Transport server.
Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) is enabled and configured for the Office 365 tenant.
Network Infrastructure
Each office connects directly to the Internet by using a local connection. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Contoso plans to implement the following changes:
  For all new users in the on-premises organization, provide an email address that uses the value of the Last Name attribute and the first two letters of the First Name attribute as a prefix.
  Decommission the public folders and replace the folders with a Microsoft 265 solution that maintains web access to the content.
Technical Requirements
Contoso identifies the following technical requirements:
  All email messages sent from a SMTP domain named adatum.com must never be identified as spam.
  Any solution to replace the public folders must include the ability to collaborate with shared calendars.
Security Requirements
Contoso identifies the following security requirements:
  The principle of least privilege must be applied to all users and permissions.
  All email messages sent from an SMTP domain named com to contoso.com must be encrypted.
  All users must be protected from accessing unsecure websites when they click on URLs embedded in email messages.
  If a user attempts to send an email message to a distribution group that contains more than 15 members by using Outlook, the user must receive a warning before sending the message.
Problem statements
Recently, a user named HelpdeskUser1 erroneously created several mailboxes. Helpdesk1user1 is a member of the Recipient Management management role group.
Users who have a mailbox in office 365 report that it takes a long time for email messages containing attachments to be delivered.
 

You must prevent HelpDeskUser1 from repeating the same mistake.
You need to identify which management role provided HelpDeskUser1 with the necessary permissions to make the mistake identified in the problem statement.
Which two cmdlets should you run? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

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B.    Get-ManagementRoleEntry
C.    Get-RoleGroupMember
D.    Get-ManagementRoleAssignment
E.    Get-ManagementRole

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QUESTION 1165
A security analyst is performing a BIA. The analyst notes that in a disaster, failover systems must be up and running within 30 minutes. The failover systems must use backup data that is no older than one hour. Which of the following should the analyst include in the business continuity plan?

A. A maximum MTTR of 30 minutes
B. A maximum MTBF of 30 minutes
C. A maximum RTO of 60 minutes
D. A maximum RPO of 60 minutes
E. An SLA guarantee of 60 minutes

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QUESTION 334
A user wants to see the workstations present on the LAN in a workgroup environment. Which of the following settings must be enabled to make this possible?

A. Turn off public folder sharing
B. Turn on network discovery
C. Use 128-bit encryption
D. Turn on file and folder sharing

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QUESTION 335
Which of the following will ultimately determine risk thresholds?

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B. The risk appetite of the key stakeholders
C. The practice standard for risk management
D. The project manager

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QUESTION 1565
Which statement summarizes the role of the change control board?

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B. The change control board will analyze the change impact in terms of cost and schedule
C. The change control board is responsible for managing the change management and configuration management systems
D. The change control board is responsible for reviewing and approving changes to the project

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